Researchers at the University of Glasgow suggest that alcohol availability "holds a strong and independent impact on the level of crime in residential areas".
Their research suggests that crime rates are higher where alcohol is more readily available, but surely this doesn't prove that "over-provision" in itself leads to higher crime rates? The data does, however, appear to show a link between the availability/consumption of alcohol and income-deprived areas, where crime rates happen to be higher in general. I have no doubt that the use of alcohol does directly cause crimes, but I don't feel this research as it stands is enough to provide the "science" behind such policy-making.
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